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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 19.06.2025 15:56

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Has anyone ever made you take off your shirt?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Why do women need to wear bras, in spite of the fact that the breasts are an integral part of the body?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

You'll usually find your answer there.

What is the moral stance on lying? Can you provide examples of when it is appropriate or inappropriate to lie? Does the Bible address this issue?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.